Optimal Portfolios For Two Assets

Let’s discuss the proper way to mix two risky assets in a portfolio.  I explained mixing one risky asset with cash before. Let’s up the complexity. 

I’m going to continue exploring how to mix assets3 with the aim of maximizing your long term wealth through the geometric return. If you haven’t read the prior post on building portfolios, please start there. This post builds on top of that one, further aiming to implement the concepts of the Kelly criterion.

A well known mathematical formula exists for maximizing the long term return of two assets,1 but the pure math doesn’t provide the context needed to truly understand the nature of the process. The pure math is just numbers with no meaning, so we’re going to ignore it for now. Let’s understand the mechanics behind the optimal portfolio construction by tackling the problem graphically.

Also at this time, I’m going to ignore cash. I’ll remove this constraints later, but for now, let’s just keep it simple.

The Assets

I’ll use the following theoretical two assets:

Asset 1:  7% Arithmetic Return, 20% Standard Deviation

Asset 2:  10% Arithmetic Return, 30% Standard Deviation

First, let’s create the mixing ranges as explained in the prior post, by subtracting the variance (standard deviation2) from the Arithmetic Return.

Graphically, here is how this looks:

The chart is similar to mixing cash and a risky asset, but this time both assets have volatility. In order to “see” the optimal portfolio, we have to perform one more transformation to the chart.  Take the “wings” on asset #1, and move them around asset #2 (You can go the other way too if you want, just remember you’d be finding the % of asset #2 if you do).

Now, compare the geometric average of asset #1, to the expanded mixing range.  Mathematically this means:

A#1 Geometric Average – Bottom of Mixing Range = % of A#1 in the portfolio.
A#1 Standard Deviation2 + A#2 Standard Deviation2                                                  .

In our specific case this is:

5% – (-1%)   =  46%
30%2 + 20%2          .

Optimally, the portfolio should consist of 46% asset #1 and 54% asset #2. 

Plotting the geometric return of the portfolio vs. the composition of the two assets shows a peak right where expected. Furthermore, notice the combined portfolio has a higher geometric return than either asset does by itself. The combination of the two assets improves the geometric return.

Only Mix Assets If Ranges Overlap

These assets (if uncorrelated) should not be combined in the portfolio. Their mixing ranges don’t overlap.

If the two asset ranges don’t overlap before the transformation, then mixing them provides no benefit to the long term return.  As we’re about to see, asset correlation expands and contracts these ranges, potentially changing this conclusion. But after this change the concept still holds. If you want to mix the two assets, the modified ranges need to overlap.

Let’s Bring In Correlation

Correlation measures how the two assets move in relation to each other.  When no relation exists, the correlation is zero. If the correlation is 1, the two assets move in lockstep with each other. If the correlation is -1 (negatively correlated), the assets move in the opposite directions.  One will go up, and the other will go down.  Partial correlation lies in between – sometimes moving in the same way, or sometimes moving opposite.

When mixing two assets, assets correlation expands or contracts the mixing range.  A correlation of 0 leaves the range as unchanged (as above).  A positive correlation shrinks the range. Negative correlation expands the mixing range.  Let’s start by examining negative correlation (-1).

Correlation of -1.

For two fully negatively correlated assets (-1), the mixing range expands on the top and the bottom by the geometric average of the two individual mixing ranges.  In our example, the assets have mixing ranges of 9% and 4%.  So the geometric average of the two ranges are:

(9% x 4%)1/2  = 6%

Now lets add this amount onto both ends to create the new modified mixing range.

And now, compare the geometric average of asset #1, to our modified mixing range. 

____A#1 Geo Average ___ – ___ Bottom of Mixing Range_______ = % of A#1 in the portfolio
A#1 St. Deviation2 + A#2 St. Deviation2 + 2 x Geo Avg (A#1,A#2)                                .                                                 

5% – (-7%)  =  48%
25%          .

Interestingly, the preferred portfolio doesn’t change much from the uncorrelated portfolio.  More on this later. 

Notice how large the mixing range is now. It should be clear that assets with very low geometric returns, even negative geometric returns will still help the overall portfolio. Negative correlation makes even “bad” assets very useful to portfolios.

Because of the negative correlation, the portfolio return chart also shows a fairly large increase in expected long term returns – nearly a 1.5% increase.

Now lets look at what happens with fully positive correlation of 1.

Correlation of 1.

When assets become correlated with each other, you reduce the mixing range by the geometric average of the two assets. 

Then compare the geometric average of asset #1 to our shrunken mixing range.

5% – (5%)  =  0%
1%         .

Unlike our uncorrelated portfolio, positive correlation makes a huge difference, quickly making asset #1 no use to the portfolio.  It makes more sense to just hold asset #2.

As correlations increase toward one, diversification becomes less and less beneficial, to the point that these two assets which have very similar geometric returns no longer work with each other in a portfolio. This aspect clearly comes through in the portfolio return chart.

In-between Correlations.

To address in-between correlations, scale the geometric average by the asset’s correlation.  As an example, for a correlation of 0.5, reduce the mixing range by half the geometric average of the asset mixing ranges. And vice versa for negative correlations. Universally this translates to:

Geometric Average of Mixing Ranges X Correlation = Change in Mixing Range

6% * 0.5 = 3%

And our calculation of the optimal portfolio in this case is:

5% – (2%)  =  43%
7%          .

Correlation’s Effect on Portfolio Construction is Not Linear.

As shown above, negative correlations don’t effect the optimal portfolio much, but positive correlations will. Plotting the optimal portfolio as a function of the correlation, you get the following chart.

You can see how negative correlations roughly leave the the optimal portfolio in the same spot.  But as the assets become more and more correlated, the optimal portfolio composition moves dramatically.

This chart doesn’t always have to point down. It can flip and bend up, depending on which asset has a higher geometric average. But it always has a similar overall shape, accelerating away as the correlation moves towards 1. If you’re dealing with a highly positive correlation, it’s important to get the prediction correct, as an error here can have large consequences.

Other Key Takeaways

A couple other key points:

  • If two assets have the same geometric return, they should always be mixed 50/50. The arithmetic return does not matter. The correlation does not matter.
  • Negative correlations are deeply valuable in portfolio construction, adding to the long term return. Positive correlations are harmful, limiting the benefit of diversification.

In a following post I’m going to add cash to the mix. Cash complicates the math, which is why I’ve focused here on communicating the relationship between the asset properties and optimal portfolio construction. What you need to always remember:

  • Mix assets by comparing their Geometric Returns.
  • The mixing range for the geometric returns is the combination of each asset’s variance, expanded or contracted based on the correlation between the two assets.
  • Negative correlation is wonderful.

1- The formula is (page 9):

3- To be clear I’m only discussing assets that are reasonably symmetrical in their distribution over the time frame between re-balancing. Think stocks and bonds. Some investments, like options, are skewed and don’t necessarily follow this math.

15 Replies on “Optimal Portfolios For Two Assets

  1. What are your thoughts on adding options to your mix of assets for the negative correlation?

    I am a micro cap investor / trader with around 55% IRR compounded returns over the last few years.

    My returns have seemingly limited correlation with the total market in current conditions, however I am worried about this correlation increasing drastically in recessionary conditions.

    Given I am usually 100% invested, I am considering adding LEAPS put options on the SPY to protect the downside of my portfolio in recessionary conditions (usually associated with 25%+ market downturns, anything less than this I don’t really care about as my alpha can outpace, and correlations are limited).

    Something like these puts for example. https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/SPY211217P00235000?p=SPY211217P00235000

    Given my cursory reading of your work and that of Ole Peter’s. I think this is a worthwhile proposition for a few reasons.

    1. Insurance can be mathematically optimal for both parties (proof in Peter’s work, very beautiful) at increasing both of their geometric growth rates.
    2. When correlations of standard assets increases in crashes, having something that basically by definition has an exponential negative correlation with the market is remarkably beneficial for compounding.
    3. Tax benefits in my country (won’t go into this).

    Universa investments does something similar to this (tail hedging), and the results might be of interest to you.

    https://www.scribd.com/document/389213972/Univers-a-de-Cenni-Al-Letter
    https://www.universa.net/riskmitigation.html

    The article is very useful and interesting. He gets that it is the geometric return that matters.

    I was thinking about having a go at calculating optimal percentage for me to hedge / spend per year in hedges, but given the nature of it it would seem to be very difficult with a lot of moving parts.

  2. I absolutely think deep out of the money puts can help long term geometric portfolio returns. I think the math from both Peters and Spitznagel you reference supports it. But I think its extremely tricky to make it work well in the real world. There are so many variables effecting option prices. If it was a simple as just buying an option out of the money and waiting, would probably have incorportated them into the this portfolio. But knowing the size of the option, what index to use, when to sell them, when to roll them, how far out of the money, how far into the future, when is “too expensive”, when is the crash risk to low…. its hard. If you can navigate it, thought, they should help.

    If I managed a microcap portfolio, I’d monitor the correlation between the components. If they are behaving fairly uncorrelated, the risk shouldn’t be terribly high. But if the assets are moving in near unison, I personally would be scared and either reduce the position or buy puts. But that’s not a recommendation, just my thoughts off the top of my head.

    Beyond Universa, I think Swan Capital Management tries to do the same thing as you are describing. Randy Swan did two podcast with Meb Faber that are worth listening to. https://mebfaber.com/2019/05/22/episode-157-randy-swan-always-invested-always-hedged/

  3. Great post. A small question:

    A#1 St. Deviation2 + A#2 St. Deviation2 + 2 x Geo Avg (A#1,A#2)

    In the denominator, for % of asset 1. The last part 2* Geo Avg(A#1, A#2) refers to 2*geoAvg (Var A1, Var A2)?

  4. I use https://github.com/robertmartin8/PyPortfolioOpt/tree/master/pypfopt to find the optimal distribution of assets based on your blog.

    By default they use negative_sharpe objective function: -(mu – risk_free_rate) / sigma
    (https://github.com/robertmartin8/PyPortfolioOpt/blob/master/pypfopt/objective_functions.py)

    If I change objective function to -(mu – risk_free_rate – sigma ^ 2 / 2) it would be Geometric Average return.

    The problem is that sigma ^ 2 is too low and it actually doesn’t play any role in the result. So it just tries to maximize mu. As the result portfolio looks like SPY: 0, TLT: 1, GLD: 0. Window is: 2020/1/1 – 2020/1/31

    You mentioned that you use a window of 20-50 days. Could you give me exact window that you use right now?

    Don’t reply the previous question😀

  5. Thank you for the incredible content you have given us. I read all your posts and comments during this weekend. Simply amazing!

    I am not from tech or math savy population (I work with medicine, art and people). So it is still kind of hard to understand. But I’m trying!

    A couple of questions: will there be an additional post about balancing three assets plus cash (like in your portfolio)? Do you use a weekly stdev and weekly geometric average?

  6. Very informative blogs that I just discovered today. Can you explain the leveraged assets. I already trade TQQQ in my 457 PCRA account. Does the leverage account use 3x SPY such as UPRO or DDM?

  7. Very nice article. What does the formula for omega in Note 1 mean? Is this the fraction of capital at risk for the whole portfolio or the weight for the asset with highest mean return?

    1. Its the weight of asset 1 in the portfolio. Asset 2 would be 1- omega1, or you can just flip the inputs for mu and sigma in the equation.

      1. Thanks for replying. Is this the tangency portfolio? If true, I haven’t been able to reconcile this formula with formulas for the weights offered in some other publications.

  8. For mixing two assets with a correlation of -1, I get the geometric average would be higher, but how do you calculate the revised standard deviation, or variance?

  9. the formula you cite seems to suggest that the geometric return does not sit in the middle of the mixing range as you state. The “bottom of mixing range” would be: (GA#1 – Var#2), the top would be: (GA#1 + Var#1).

    looking at the numerator from (1) simplifies to (assume correlation=0):
    mu#1 – mu#2 + var#2
    but if your “bottom of mixing range” is (mu#2 – (var#1 / 2) – (var#2 / 2)) as you state, then your numerator would be:
    mu#1 – (mu#2 – (var#1 / 2) – (var#2 / 2))

    and clearly var#2 is not equal to (var#1 / 2) + (var#2 / 2)

    the denominators match as they are both the sum of the two variances, but the different numerators results in very different allocations

    can you clarify what is going on here? perhaps I have made a mistake somewhere, or misunderstood something…

    1. Looking at this again, I see that in (1), mu represents the arithmetic mean, not the geometric mean as I was assuming. This makes everything work out as you say. Cheers!

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